Calculus I · Building a Function From Its Derivatives

The flagship: exe^x rebuilds itself

Now the example the whole chapter was waiting for. Center at a=0a = 0. We need all the derivatives of exe^x at 00 — and here is where Chapter 5 pays an enormous dividend. Since exe^x is its own derivative, every derivative of exe^x is again exe^x, and at x=0x = 0 every one of them equals e0=1e^0 = 1. So every coefficient is 1k!\tfrac{1}{k!}, and

ex=1+x+x22!+x33!+x44!+⋯\boxed{\;e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} + \cdots\;}

Look at how inevitable that was. We didn’t grind through a table of messy derivatives; the self-similarity of exe^x handed us every coefficient at once. The most beautiful series in mathematics exists because its function refuses to change under differentiation. Test it: e0.1≈1+0.1+0.012+0.0016=1.10517…e^{0.1} \approx 1 + 0.1 + \tfrac{0.01}{2} + \tfrac{0.001}{6} = 1.10517\ldots, and a calculator gives e0.1=1.10517…e^{0.1} = 1.10517\ldots — agreement to five places from four terms, because the factorials in the denominators crush the later terms fast. (Figure 7.3: exe^x with T1,T2,T3,T4T_1, T_2, T_3, T_4 layered on top, each clinging to the curve over a visibly wider stretch.)

Figure 7.3
Figure 7.3

Two more, and an old friend returns

11−x\dfrac{1}{1-x} at 00. Its derivatives are f(k)(x)=k!(1−x)k+1f^{(k)}(x) = \dfrac{k!}{(1-x)^{k+1}}, so f(k)(0)=k!f^{(k)}(0) = k!, and the coefficient is k!k!=1\tfrac{k!}{k!} = 1. Every coefficient is 11:

Figure 7.4
Figure 7.4

11−x=1+x+x2+x3+⋯\frac{1}{1-x} = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + \cdots

That is the geometric series from Chapter 1, now revealed as a Taylor series. And it carries a warning you must respect: this equality only holds for |x|<1|x| < 1. Plug in x=2x = 2 and the left side is 11−2=−1\tfrac{1}{1-2} = -1 while the right side is 1+2+4+⋯=+∞1 + 2 + 4 + \cdots = +\infty. A Taylor series is a local promise; it is true only where it converges. We’ll make that precise with the remainder in a moment.

ln⁡(1+x)\ln(1+x) at 00. Here f′(x)=11+xf'(x) = \tfrac{1}{1+x}, and the derivatives give f(k)(0)=(−1)k−1(k−1)!f^{(k)}(0) = (-1)^{k-1}(k-1)!, so the coefficient is (−1)k−1(k−1)!k!=(−1)k−1k\tfrac{(-1)^{k-1}(k-1)!}{k!} = \tfrac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}:

ln⁡(1+x)=x−x22+x33−x44+⋯\ln(1+x) = x - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3} - \frac{x^4}{4} + \cdots

Notice the leading term is just xx. That is the exact reason behind a limit we borrowed back in Chapter 1: ln⁡(1+t)t→1\tfrac{\ln(1+t)}{t} \to 1 as t→0t\to 0, the fact that made (1+xn)n→ex\left(1+\tfrac{x}{n}\right)^n \to e^x work. The “loan” was that ln⁡(1+t)≈t\ln(1+t) \approx t near 00 — and there it is, the first Taylor term, finally explained.


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